Above is a typical list of assertions used by both trinitarian and oneness proponents to assert that “Jesus is God”
However such a conclusion cannot be true simply because:
- There is solely ONE GOD the Father – 1 Corinthians 8:4,6 whom Jesus himself identified as the only true GOD – John 17:3; Jesus (a Jew) concurred with a fellow Jew in citing the creed of scripture, the Shema (Deuteronomy 6:4) that there is solely
One God and there is none other besides Him – Believing and obeying this, is in fact the greatest commandment – Mark 12:28-32
- Jesus of Nazareth therefore is the ONE GOD’s human Son, the man Messiah Jesus
(1 Timothy 2:5, Acts 2:22) whom the ONE GOD exalted, made him Lord and set at His Right Hand, in fulfillment of Psalm 110:1.
Therefore Jesus is the most exalted human being, second only to GOD; nonetheless subject to GOD (1 Corinthians 15:27-28)
- So we have ONE GOD, the Father and the man Christ Jesus our Lord
ONE is GOD, the other is not!
The above is a summary of what the NT clearly teaches. The NT GOD is the same GOD of the OT; He is the same GOD of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob; who NOW in the NT has glorified His servant Jesus (Acts 3:13). Therefore Jesus is not GOD rather
Jesus is Lord to the glory of the ONE GOD, the Father (Philippians 2:11)
Hence the above tract is faulty. It needs correction. So each of the twenty points shall now be examined in turn with any appropriate corrections rendered.
We shall now begin :-
1. The fullness of God dwells in Jesus in bodily form.
Amen! However that then makes Jesus, God’s living temple.
The temple being filled with all the fullness of God does not somehow make the temple, God?!
- Exodus 40:35
And Moses was not able to enter into the tent of the congregation, because the cloud abode thereon, and the glory of Yahweh filled the tabernacle.
Does that now mean that the tabernacle is God?
- 2 Chronicles 5:14
So that the priests could not stand to minister by reason of the cloud: for the glory of Yahweh had filled the house of God.
Does that now mean that the house of God is God?
- 2 Chronicles 7:2
And the priests could not enter into the house of Yahweh, because the glory of Yahweh had filled Yahweh’s house.
Does that now mean that the house of Yahweh is God?
Hopefully one can see that just as the answer to all three questions based upon the above verses is the negative; likewise in the NT, Jesus is God’s living temple; he is indeed a man filled with all the fullness of God! That however does not make him, God!
In fact, did not Paul pray in Ephesians 3:19 that the NT church would come “to know the love of Christ, which passeth knowledge, that ye might be filled with all the fulness of God.”
Would answer to such prayer make the members of the NT church, God? Of course not!
So indeed, Jesus stated John 14:10 Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works.
GOD dwells in Jesus! Paul then says (2 Corinthians 5:19) To wit, that God was in Christ;
note, he does not say “God IS Christ”
2. Jesus’ name is Emmanuel, which the Bible says is translated as “God with us”.
Indeed God was with us because He dwelt in Christ when Christ was here. (See No. 1)
Peter goes on to say: Acts 10:38 How God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Ghost and with power: who went about doing good, and healing all that were oppressed of the devil; for God was with him.
Emmanuel in Hebrew is “God is with us”. For more details please watch the following video
“Emmanuel” Matthew 1:23 Explained.
3. Every knee in heaven and earth will bow before the name of Jesus.
Amen! The question is however, Why? Why must every knee bow?
Answer: Because the ONE GOD, the Father, has highly exalted Jesus, made him Lord, and set him at His right hand in fulfillment of Psalm 110.1. This exaltation includes Jesus being exalted even above the angels (1 Peter 3:22). Therefore (Philippians 2:10-11) At the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth; 11 And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord,
to the glory of God the Father.
Nevertheless, God STILL has no equals (Isaiah 40:25, 46:5). The Lord Jesus is subject to
his God, the ONE GOD, the Father (1 Corinthians 15:27-28)
An excellent, scriptural illustration of Jesus’ exaltation by God would be to compare Joseph’s exaltation by Pharaoh. Just as Joseph had functional equality with Pharaoh yet he was subject to Pharaoh (only in the throne will I be greater than thou – Genesis 41:40); likewise Jesus has functional equality with God (Matthew 28:18) yet GOD is still the GOD OF Christ (John 20:17, Revelation 3:12), so obviously God is greater than him (John 14:28).
4. Jesus said “if you have seen me, you have seen the Father”.
Why? Because Jesus is the image of the Invisible God. (Colossians 1:15) However an image is not the original but a”representative likeness.” Jesus is the Invisible GOD’s ultimate Representative, His Ultimate Plenipotentary. To see Jesus in action, was to see GOD in action, because GOD was working in him, doing the actual works
5. Jesus is the Creator of everything, and nothing was created apart from him.
John 1:3 is not about Jesus at all! To state the obvious, he is not even mentioned!
The writer of the above tract has read Jesus into that verse! To quote Colin Brown:
“It is a common but patent misreading of the opening of John’s Gospel to read it as if it said: ‘In the beginning was the Son, and the Son was with God and the Son was God’ (John 1:1). What has happened here is the substitution of Son for Word (Greek logos), and thereby the Son is made a member of the Godhead which existed from the beginning.”
Colin Brown, “Trinity and Incarnation: In search of Contemporary Orthodoxy”,
Ex Auditu (7), 1991.
Point No. 5 shows a classic example of such patent misreading!
Let us now look at what John actually stated. John is talking about God’s (spoken) word. That is what verses 1-4 of John Chapter 1 are all about. God spoke His word and IT was done. Nothing was created apart from IT!
[By the way that is exactly how John 1:1-4 was translated from the Greek text into English in our bibles beginning with Tyndale before the KJV of 1611.
That is, John 1:1-4 was translated as follows:
In the beginning was the word,
and the word was with God,
and the word was God.
The same was in the beginning with God.
All things were made by it; and without it was not any thing made that was made.
In it was life; and the life was the light of men.]
Psalm 33:6 – By the word of Yahweh were the heavens made; and all the host of them by the breath of his mouth.
Psalm 33:9 – For he spake, and it was done; he commanded, and it stood fast.
So GOD alone is the Creator of everything (Isaiah 44:24); GOD create everything by speaking it into existence.
Indeed eventually (John 1:14) God’s word became flesh resulting in the conception of Jesus of Nazareth, the Christ, the Son of God.
So God’s word/logos becomes Jesus of Nazareth in verse 14. The IT becomes a human being!
For further details about the opening verses of John please watch the following video:
6. Jesus called himself God when he said “I AM”.
There is absolutely no connection between Exodus 3:14 and John 8:58 at all!
I will explain.
The Greek OT (Septuagint/LXX) in Exodus 3:14 reads: And God said unto Moses,
EGO EIMI HO ON: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, HO ON hath sent me unto you.
EGO EIMI HO ON – “I am the LIVING BEING” is how it is recorded in the Septuagint –
HO ON – the LIVING BEING hath sent me unto you.
So if Jesus had said, “Before Abraham, HO ON” in John 8:58 – then yes, Jesus would be
proclaiming he is the ONE GOD!
However Jesus did not say that! Rather he said “Before Abraham, EGO EIMI”
And what does EGO EIMI mean? It means: I am he OR It is me! Me who?
In this context, The Messiah!!
EGO EIMI simply means “It is me!” This is exactly what the once blind man said in John 9:9 when the people were questioning whether it was the same man who was blind?
He replied EGO EIMI! What? Was the man affirming that he was GOD? No!
He was saying it is me! I am the same man who was blind!
So, what did Jesus mean by saying EGO EIMI in the context of John 8.53ff?
Clue: The questions asked were, 8:53 Art thou greater than our father Abraham, which is dead? and the prophets are dead: whom makest thou thyself?
John 8:58 was Jesus’ final response to those questions in relation to Abraham:
Before Abraham, I am he? He who? The Messiah!!
That is exactly the context used by the writer John when he first records the use of the phrase “EGO EIMI” on the lips of Jesus.
See John 4.25-26
4:25 The woman saith unto him, I know that Messias cometh, which is called Christ: when he is come, he will tell us all things. 26 Jesus saith unto her, I that speak unto thee am he. [EGO EIMI]
Jesus tells her EGO EIMI! I am he! He who? The Messiah; the one you’re speaking of!
(See also Mark 13:6, Luke 21:8; compare Matthew 24:5)
Jesus is the Messiah and he asserted the very same thing in John 8:24: I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for if ye believe not that I am he, ye shall die in your sins.
If, as many say, that Jesus was stating that he was GOD; his enemies would not have then asked in verse 25, WHO ARE YOU? (Seeing that he had apparently just told them that he was GOD!)
And what was Jesus’ response?
Even the same that I said unto you from the beginning.
Reader, I ask you? Where from the beginning of his ministry did Jesus ever say “I am God?”
Answer: He did not!
Rather, Jesus affirmed from the beginning of his ministry that he was the
The Son of God = The Messiah. And in John 8:24; he is stating unless we believe that I am he i.e. the Messiah; we will die in our sins. And in John 8:58 Jesus was indeed stating that he was greater than Abraham and the prophets; because before Abraham even came into existence, he was foreordained in the ONE GOD’s counsel, to be the Messiah! (See 1 Peter 1:20)
So before Abraham, I am he! The Messiah!
For more info; please watch this video John 8:58 – “Before Abraham I am”
7. Jesus received worship from angels, disciples, and followers.
Indeed, just as kings of the OT received worship i.e. obeisance likewise Jesus received such civil worship. Jesus is the King Messiah. The major difference from the kings of old, is that GOD made Jesus Lord and highly exalted him even above the angels
(See No. 3, 1 Peter 3:22). In consequence of the fact that GOD in making Jesus, Lord
(Acts 2:36, 10:36, Philippians 2:11), He exalted Jesus His Son above all!
Therefore, Jesus is due such obeisance from all including even from the angels!
(It ought to be obvious that all does not include GOD Himself – 1 Corinthians 15:27)
I expand on this subject here:The Worship of Messiah Jesus the Lord. Please read.
8. The writer of Hebrews quotes Old Testament verses about God when referring to Jesus.
The OT verses quoted in Hebrews is actually taken from the Septuagint (LXX: the Greek translation of the Hebrew OT used in NT times)
The context is actually about the new heavens and new earth i.e. God’s Coming Kingdom.
For an explanation of these verses as used by the writer of Hebrews please view the following video:
Hebrews 1.10 & the Age to Come, the Kingdom of God
9. Jesus said “I and the Father are one”.
Amen! And Jesus prayed that we ALL BE ONE even as he and the Father are ONE!
(John 17:11,21-23) Therefore he means ONE as in unity with God’s purpose and will; nothing to do with deity!
Please watch John 10:30
10. Jesus receives glory from God though God does not share His glory.
If one reads the context of Isaiah 42 beginning with verse 1; one will see that the context is about GOD’s servant (namely Jesus of Nazareth, Matthew 12:18, Acts 3:13); glory was predestined for GOD’s servant – GOD would not give this predestined glory to another!
2 Peter 1:17
For he [Jesus] received from God the Father honour and glory, when there came such a voice to him from the excellent glory, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.
The above verse speaks for itself. God indeed shares His glory. Now when one turns to John 17 one reads
John 17:20 Neither pray I for these alone, but for them also which shall believe on me through their word; 21 That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me. 22 And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one:
Not only has GOD indeed shared glory with His servant, Jesus. Jesus in turns, gives that same glory to his followers! So that same predestined glory is for all the true followers of Christ!
For further exposition on John 17 please view these two videos
11. Thomas called Jesus “God”, and Jesus said “you believe because you see me”.
Believe what? What is the context?
Answer: That Jesus is indeed the Christ, the Son of the living God, proved by the fact that God raised him from the dead! Hence:
John 20:30 And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of his disciples, which are not written in this book:
31 But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ,
the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.
God raising Jesus from the dead is the ultimate proof that Jesus is who he claimed to be:
The Messiah, the Son of God (John 10.36, 19:7, Mark 14:61-62, Matthew 26:63-64)
In light of the resurrected Jesus, Thomas therefore acknowledges both!
That is, he acknowledges both the Lord Jesus and the one GOD, the Father, who raised Jesus from the dead (Romans 6:4). Thomas finally gets it! He gets what Jesus was talking about in John 14:6-20. Remember he was present with Philip and the rest of the disciples during that converse.
The resurrection of Jesus was the ultimate proof that Jesus is indeed in the Father and the Father is in him! Thomas finally gets it and therefore acknowledges them both!
Both the Lord Jesus and the GOD who dwells in him and does the works!
Hence his confession in John 20:28.
To safequard anyone from gettting the false impression that Thomas was somehow confessing that Jesus is God one should clearly see that verse 28 is bracketed between verses 17 and 31 which read
John 20:17 Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.
John 20:31 But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ,
the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.
That is John’s conclusion. And that should be the conclusion of all who have read
John’s Gospel correctly with understanding. Jesus is GOD’s Son whom GOD resurrected. Thomas acknowledges both the Lord Jesus and the ONE GOD.
For further exposition on John 20:28 in relation to John 14
I will now quote Kermit Zarley:
12. Jesus existed as God before becoming a man.
The context of Philippians Chapter 2 suggests no such thing!
God is not a man (Numbers 23:19, Job 9:32, 33:12; Hosea 11:9) rather God is Spirit (John 4:24)
God never became a man! No scripture suggests such a thing.
Rather the context of Philippians Chapter 2 is about the self-abasement and humbling of Jesus of Nazareth who although being in the form/image of God nevertheless emptied/humbled himself and took on the form of a servant. In consequence of his total obedience even to the death of the cross, GOD in turn has highly exalted him, set him at His right hand, and made him Lord to GOD’s glory. See No. 3.
For more exposition on Philippians I recommend the following article
THE FORM OF GOD
13. Jesus forgave sins, which is only possible by God.
It is also possible when God gives the authority to forgive sins in His name to a man! And God indeed gave such authority to the man Jesus of Nazareth. The believing crowd recognized this fact hence:
But when the multitudes saw it, they marvelled, and glorified God, which had given such power [authority/exousia] unto men.
By the way, Christ in turn, gave the same such authority to his disciples in John 20:23
John 20:23 Whose soever sins ye remit [Gk. word aphiemi – the same Gk. word translated forgive/forgiven in Matthew 9, Mark 2], they are remitted [forgiven] unto them; and whose soever sins ye retain, they are retained.
So his disciples were given authority in John 20:23 to forgive/remit sins. Does that make them GOD?
14. Jesus is the visible image of the invisible God.
Amen! He is indeed the true image of God – God’s ultimate representative.
(Colossians 1:15, 2 Corinthians 4:4) Remember, an image is not the original but
So Jesus is not GOD; rather he is as Scripture asserts: the image OF the Invisible God
15. The Father calls Jesus “God”.
To get the correct understanding, one should turn to Psalm 45, where the writer of Hebrews is quoting from. Then one will see that just as an Israelite, obviously human king, can be called elohim; seeing that the king in question is GOD’s representative. Then how much more, the Messiah Jesus, he whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world; how much more he who is the awaited King Messiah, the Son of God (John 1:49), who has been exalted to GOD’s right hand; indeed how much more fitting, it is that Jesus can be called elohim in this representative sense, as God’s Ultimate Representative.
16. Jesus is prayed to.
Jesus instructed his followers to ask the Father in his name:
John 16:23 And in that day ye shall ask me nothing. Verily, verily, I say unto you, Whatsoever ye shall ask the Father in my name, he will give it you. 24 Hitherto have ye asked nothing in my name: ask, and ye shall receive, that your joy may be full. 25 These things have I spoken unto you in proverbs: but the time cometh, when I shall no more speak unto you in proverbs, but I shall shew you plainly of the Father. 26 At that day ye shall ask in my name: …
John 15:26 … that whatsoever ye shall ask of the Father in my name, he may give it you
So indeed, the NT church would pray to the LORD GOD the Father in the name of Jesus; that is, calling upon the name of the Lord [i.e. Jesus]. We have a wonderful example of such prayer in Acts 4:24-30 (NKJV):
Act 4:24 So when they heard that, they raised their voice to God with one accord and said: Lord, You are God, who made heaven and earth and the sea, and all that is in them, 25 who by the mouth of Your servant David have said:
‘Why did the nations rage,
And the people plot vain things?
26 The kings of the earth took their stand,
And the rulers were gathered together
Against the LORD and against His Christ.’ [Psalm 2:1-2]
27 For truly against Your holy Servant Jesus, whom You anointed
[Christ = anointed one],
both Herod and Pontius Pilate, with the Gentiles and the people of Israel, were gathered together 28 to do whatever Your hand and Your purpose determined before to be done.
29 Now, Lord, look on their threats, and grant to Your servants that with all boldness they may speak Your word, 30 by stretching out Your hand to heal, and that signs and wonders may be done through the name of Your holy Servant Jesus.”
The above is a verbatim example of NT apostolic prayer!
The apostles prayed to the LORD GOD in the name of His Christ, namely the LORD’s [Yahweh’s] holy servant Jesus.
Colossians 3:17 And whatsoever ye do in word or deed, do all in the name of the Lord Jesus, giving thanks to God and the Father by him.
Ephesians 5:20 Giving thanks always for all things unto God and the Father in the name of our Lord Jesus Christ;
The distinction is clear! The clear definition of God and Christ given in 1 Timothy 2:5 remains true.
17. Jesus is the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last.
GOD is indeed called the first and the last, for He alone is the eternal GOD who knows the beginning from the end, who speaks things into being, and declare things before they come to past. There is no other God besides Him who can do this. Therefore GOD is the first and the last, in a category all on His own. He indeed has the first and the last word! That is the context of this title in regards to GOD starting with the passages in Isaiah (44:6, 48:12, 41:4).
What of Jesus? Is this title applicable to Jesus in the same context, in the same sense?
Well firstly, GOD CANNOT DIE! He alone has immortality innately; it is His to give.
Yet Revelation 2:8 speaking of Jesus clearly states: These things saith the first and the last, which was dead, and is alive; 1:17-18 reads: Fear not; I am the first and the last: 18 I am he that liveth, and was dead; and, behold, I am alive for evermore, Amen; and have the keys of hell and of death.
So it ought to be self-evident that Jesus is called the first and the last in a different context. So in regards to the resurrection, Jesus is the firstborn from the dead, thus, the head of the church; he alone has the preeminence, seeing that when GOD raised Jesus from the dead, he set Jesus at His own right hand far above all principality, and power, and might, and dominion, and every name that is named, not only in this age, but also in the age to come: (Colossians 1:18, Ephesians 1:19-23).
Jesus is therefore unique in this category, seeing that Jesus was the first to be resurrected from the dead to immortal life and the last to be so resurrected directly by God Himself; all others will be resurrected through Jesus. Also, Jesus is the author and finisher of our faith
(Hebrews 12:2); So in this sense, Jesus is indeed the first and the last
(Note: this phrase is solely used of Jesus in Revelation 1:11,17, 2:8. The other occurrences are speaking of GOD Almighty)
18. Jesus is the source or origin of all creation.
The context is the new creation, that is, the new heavens and the new earth; which will replace the old. Jesus is the beginning of the [new] creation of God – Revelation 3:14.
And the very fact that Jesus is spoken of in the category of creation rules him out of being himself, the Creator! (Note Romans 1:25) Selah!
Jesus is indeed the firstborn of GOD’s new creation (Colossians 1:15), which in turn signifies him as being the beginning of the creation of God. The theme of Colossians 1:12ff is God’s Coming Kingdom (verse 13) which is a synonym for God’s New Creation.
19. Jesus commanded that we pray “in my name”.
Exactly! Now read John 16:23 And in that day ye shall ask me nothing. Verily, verily, I say unto you, Whatsoever ye shall ask the Father in my name, he will give it you.
See No. 16.
20. The first words of John’s gospel say that in the beginning the “Word was God”.
Again, to state the obvious, Jesus is not even mentioned in the first words of John’s Gospel! The context is about God’s word. See No. 5.
Also regards the first words of John’s gospel please watch the following video: John 1:1-3
- There is solely ONE GOD, namely, the Father.
- This ONE GOD has made the man Christ Jesus (1 Timothy 2:5) both Lord and Christ (Acts 2:36) to His (GOD’s) glory (Philippians 2:11)
- There is none other God but one — 1 Corinthians 8:4
- So TO US (the NT Apostolic Church): there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him. — 1 Corinthians 8:6
One GOD and One Man — One is GOD, the other is not!
- [GOD] Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.
For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men,
the man Christ Jesus; — 1 Timothy 2:4-5
- For they themselves shew of us what manner of entering in we had unto you, and how ye turned to God from idols to serve the living and true God;
And to wait for his Son from heaven, whom he raised from the dead, even Jesus, which delivered us from the wrath to come. — 1 Thessalonians 1:9-10